When Is "Disenfranchisement" Not "Disenfranchisement?"
By Big Tent Democrat
Speaking for me only
Via John Cole, Steve Benen makes a sound point but then avoids an obvious one. First the sound point:
[F]or the Clinton campaign to argue that Obama wants to “disenfranchise voters” in Pennsylvania, North Carolina, Oregon, West Virginia, Puerto Rico, Kentucky, South Dakota, Montana, West Virginia, and Indiana is pretty ridiculous. Obama wants the nomination fight to end, Clinton doesn’t. But that doesn’t mean he wants to “disenfranchise” voters in the remaining states. That’s just how things go for states at the end of the nominating calendar. Indeed, the states know that, and have a choice about moving their contests up.(Emphasis supplied.) Steve's last line is extremely ironic since it was Florida and Michigan's initial attempt to "move their contests up" which has led to their being disenfranchised - first by the DNC's unequal and improper application of its rules and later because Obama deliberately stymied revotes in Florida and Michigan. Thus, when Steve writes:
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